A Non-Answer to John 6

When faced with passages like John 6 in regards to the Real Presence of the Eucharist, many Protestants I know will say something like, "Yeah, but Jesus obviously spoke in parables and metaphors. So this has to be another." This begs the question, but more fundamentally, it isn't an answer. 

True, Jesus has spoken before in parables, analogies, metaphors, and all the rest. But how does it follow from Jesus it doing it before that he is actually doing it here? To make that leap, you would have to infer that everything Jesus says is not literal. But obviously that's absurd, because Jesus does refer to things literally, including his resurrection. The inverse can also show how this really isn't an answer. Suppose I said, "Well, Jesus obviously spoke literally and particularly elsewhere. So this is another example." That wouldn't work. 

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